Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 07:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What would happen if the US government told the British government in no uncertain terms all RAF bases with USAF personnel now must follow the Constitution and us law, and if the UK tried to defy this, the US military would directly attack the UK?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Which bands became massively popular for covering songs rather than recording originals?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.